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Thread: Why isn't there a 50-50 split between left and right-handedness?

  1. #1
    aka ivan the not-quite-as-terrible ivan astikov's avatar
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    Default Why isn't there a 50-50 split between left and right-handedness?

    I can't help with an answer, but I am interested in why there isn't a 50 - 50 split between left and right-handedness.

    Any theories anybody? Or have I even got that wrong?
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  2. #2
    Stegodon
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    Default Re: Why do the Japanese read and write from right to left?

    Quote Originally posted by ivan astikov
    I can't help with an answer, but I am interested in why there isn't a 50 - 50 split between left and right-handedness.

    Any theories anybody? Or have I even got that wrong?
    Ha, that's a good question. Back in the days when I was a student we did a lot of research for one seminar about handedness, and after digging through mountain of research papers final conclusion was "beats us".

    There is some genetic component in lateralization, but seems to be only partial and not most significant. On the other hand (ha! pun), handedness does seem to be rather organic trait (as opposed to cultural / learned), so there has to be some biological mechanism behind it. That leaves us with organogenesis. Hormones during pregnancy maybe?

    Actually, there seems to be quite good analogy between lateralization and homosexuality. Both traits seems to be biological, have similar rates of occurrence, have genetic component, but doesn't seem to be 100% determined genetically...

    To complicate things further, other primates also have tendency to use one hand more than the other. But distribution of left- and right-handedness is different depending of species. With some monkeys indeed having 50% of lefties.

    Why?

    Beats me. There are things in development of brain which we still don't understand.

  3. #3
    Elephant CRSP's avatar
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    Default Re: Why isn't there a 50-50 split between left and right-handedness?

    Off-topic question split from Japanese writing thread.
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